The Bible is errant, and the reason for its errancy

heretic5
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The Bible is errant, and the reason for its errancy

The Bible is errant, and the reason that it is:

Although there are many varieties of Christianity, it seems legitimate to say that a tenet of most of the varieties of Christianity is the belief that all of the Bible (Old plus New Testament) is the word of a deity called God who is alleged to have commanded people to "Love your neighbor as yourself." It does not seem to occur to the adherents of Christianity that it is a contradiction to claim that the Bible consists only of the word of God, and to also claim that God commanded people to "Love your neighbor as yourself."

This contradiction is admittedly not immediately apparent; so it will now be shown in a step-by-step manner. As a first step, another and greater commandment, which was allegedly also made by God, reads, "Thou shalt love the Lord thy God with all thy heart, and with all thy soul, and with all thy mind, and with all thy strength." The commandment to "Love your neighbor as yourself" is specified to be like it. Given that it were to be similar, one of the consequences of that similarity would be that the phrase "love the Lord thy God" would be similar to the phrase "Love your neighbor". From this similarity, it would be seen that the first and foremost "neighbor" of humanity would be "the Lord thy God". It would logically follow that if God were a neighbor of humanity, then humanity would be a neighbor of God. Given that this were to be the situation, it would logically follow that if and when God were to preserve His words in books, then He would also preserve the words of His neighbor, humanity, in those very same books. God would do this because doing this would be to love His neighbor, humanity, as He loves Himself. If God were to preserve the words of humanity in the same books in which He were to preserve His own words, then it would be a contradiction to say that the Bible is only the word of God. It would instead logically be correct to say that the Bible is the word of God plus the word of humanity.

Some people might be tempted to say that this reasoning is merely logic and therefore inapplicable to a divinity. If that allegation were to be made, then it would be appropriate to mention that the Bible itself admits that it contains the word of humanity in addition to the word of God. This admission was made at Matthew 13:33 and again at Luke 13:21. To save time, the King James Version (KJV) of Matthew 13:33 reads, "Another parable spake he unto them; The kingdom of heaven is like unto leaven, which a woman took, and hid in three measures of meal, till the whole was leavened." Luke 13:21 is similar and the KJV of it reads, "It is like leaven, which a woman took and hid in three measures of meal, till the whole was leavened." Their commonality reads, "Is like leaven, which a woman took and hid in three measures of meal, till the whole was leavened." Given that this admission is true, then it logically follows that "leaven" has been hidden in every book of the Bible ("the whole was leavened&quotEye-wink. Given that this were the situation, then it seems logical that Christianity would be divided into at least as many segments as it is.

Given that the words of the Christian deity were to be in the Bible along with the words of humanity, and given that the Christian deity were to be as just and merciful as claimed, then it would logically follow that the Christian deity would have provided a method to establish which words were whose. Considering the fact that most Christians have not yet realized that they have a need to establish which words are whose, it logically follows that most of them have not yet looked to see if there is such a way in the Bible.

If the most of Christians were nevertheless to look, then they would find that a way to establish which words were whose has indeed been provided. Of course, given that there were to be such a way, then it would logically be, that the way to establish which words were whose, would not appear to be what it were, otherwise it would have been noticed long before now. For instance, the first occurrence of the "leaven discovery tool" (to coin a phrase) is at Deuteronomy 19:15 which reads (KJV), "One witness shall not rise up against a man for any iniquity, or for any sin, in any sin that he sinneth: at the mouth of two witnesses, or at the mouth of three witnesses, shall the matter be established." This verse is admittedly not a clear instance of anything which even remotely resembles the alleged "leaven discovery tool". And the situation does not get much better with the next occurrence of it which is at Matthew 18:16 and which reads (KJV), "But if he will not hear thee, then take with thee one or two more, that in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established." In fact, it's not until the third occurrence that the "leaven discovery tool" shows even a hint of its true nature. The third occurrence is at 2 Corinthians 13:1 and it reads (KJV), "This is the third time I am coming to you. In the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established." Although a faint glimmer is seen in this third verse, it's the commonality of these three verses which more clearly shows the "leaven discovery tool". The commonality reads, "In the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established." A contemplation of this commonality leads to the discovery that it is a method by which the words of God could be established to be the words of God instead of being the words of humanity.

Although this idea seems possible in theory, does it work in practice? This method of establishing which words are the words of God was used in the first four books of the Christian New Testament. The URL of the results is http://greatriddle.flifree.com

Being a heretic is not automatically being wrong.


malachi
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heretic5 wrote:Some

heretic5 wrote:

Some people might be tempted to say that this reasoning is merely logic and therefore inapplicable to a divinity. If that allegation were to be made, then it would be appropriate to mention that the Bible itself admits that it contains the word of humanity in addition to the word of God. This admission was made at Matthew 13:33 and again at Luke 13:21. To save time, the King James Version (KJV) of Matthew 13:33 reads, "Another parable spake he unto them; The kingdom of heaven is like unto leaven, which a woman took, and hid in three measures of meal, till the whole was leavened." Luke 13:21 is similar and the KJV of it reads, "It is like leaven, which a woman took and hid in three measures of meal, till the whole was leavened." Their commonality reads, "Is like leaven, which a woman took and hid in three measures of meal, till the whole was leavened." Given that this admission is true, then it logically follows that "leaven" has been hidden in every book of the Bible ("the whole was leavened&quotEye-wink. Given that this were the situation, then it seems logical that Christianity would be divided into at least as many segments as it is.

Good stuff! (not the books, but the errancy and division of the church)

You have found a 'kingdom mystery' that 99%+ of the 'church' has not seen. They think Jesus was saying the kingdom of heaven -physical/literal, and kingdom of God -spirit realm (two different kingdoms once one and will again be one) would be great, as in good, but what he meant was that they would be corrupt (leaven) and full of devils (fowls -Mark 4)

You can see the disciples scratching their head thinking 'how could this be?', but as the church grew, heresy grew, and the word of God was corrupted, even in their lifetime it became evident Jesus wasn't kidding around.

...narrow is the way, and few find it! ....keep digging!


egrow
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heretic5 used logic, which is the same mistake Christians make in understanding the Bible. I'd like to point out the most misunderstood thing in all of Christianity, however I'm NOT prepared now, so please forgive NOT having ALL the facts at this time. Jesus is NOT, nor ever was a man! Matt. 1:21-25, Emmanual was given two names and in Acts 4:12 Salvation is in a NAME and not a person. This NAME that gives Salvation is talked about in Rev. 2:17 and in Matt. 11:27 + Jn. 1:1. I know this is NOT all the facts, but I would like it if someone researched this to see the Truth! Christianity ASSUMES the man called Jesus was what God was writting about in His Word, however that was their logical assumption which, even Today shows their ignorance!  Jesus, the name, is a process by which we are changed from cardinal to Spiritual by the Oracles of the Principles of God or Life itself!


Fateless7
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An Indirect Admission to Errancy

Another thing to look at concerning Biblical errancy are the disagreements about the "real meaning" of the text. If you do happen to catch someone on a Biblical contradiction within a Bible that has been translated into English, for example, they will often tell you that you're wrong because the text in its original language means something different. Your understanding of the Bible is therefore wrong and uneducated, and your argument flawed.

Oh really?

What this really amounts to is a confession that the translated Bible is errant. If the translation was correct, then the contradictions would hold; but apologists frequently argue for inerrancy by demonstrating why the translations are incorrect.

This is not to say that the Bible in its original language can't be proven to be errant. I just don't think the "you don't understand the Bible correctly because you have to look at the original language" is a valid argument. If the translations are wrong, then so be it, but you can no longer parade the translated Bible around as an inerrant book.

Either debate the translated Bible on its own merit, or write your own translation that you deem correct and make your own Bible, and then debate that Bible on its own merit.


spumoni
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Logical?

This argument, while claiming to put forth a logical presentation, actually fails by its own criteria.

Error #1 Equivocation- while similarities may appear in the two great commandments, they do not imply dependency ie. God being our neighbor.  Why not make the equally fallacious claim that we should worship our neighbors?  The imperative to treat our neighbors as ourselves makes the conclusion untenable. 

Error #2 non sequitor- it does not follow that if God was to give us His words they would have to be comprehensive and also comprehensive of humanity

Error #3 unsound argument- Proof texting a parable to appeal to phenomena after the fact is anachronistic and contextually suspect

 2 Tim. 3:16 "All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, correcting, rebuking and training in righteousness."

Its very simple.  All the words of the Bible are considered God's Words because that is the way they were always considered. 

Spumoni