Question for Christian moderates

inspectormustard
atheist
inspectormustard's picture
Posts: 537
Joined: 2006-11-21
User is offlineOffline
Question for Christian moderates

I have just one quick question for all the christian moderates out there:

 

Which passage of the bible nullifies most or all of the rules handed down in the old testament?


simple theist
Theist
Posts: 259
Joined: 2007-05-28
User is offlineOffline
The Old Testament was given

The Old Testament was given to Jews, and therefore Jews must follow every law in the old Testament. (or try to follow every law in the OT). A Gentile does not have to follow Jewish law. So there is no passage in the New Testament that nullifies the OT.

There are only two exceptions, and the first  is reguarding sacrifices. Because Jesus became the only sacrifice needed, Jews are no longer required to offer sacrifices.

The second exception is that Jews don't have to follow any law that requires a temple.  This is only because the temple does not exist.

 


AtheistAviB
AtheistAviB's picture
Posts: 71
Joined: 2007-06-07
User is offlineOffline
simple theist wrote: The

simple theist wrote:

The Old Testament was given to Jews, and therefore Jews must follow every law in the old Testament. (or try to follow every law in the OT). A Gentile does not have to follow Jewish law. So there is no passage in the New Testament that nullifies the OT.

There are only two exceptions, and the first  is reguarding sacrifices. Because Jesus became the only sacrifice needed, Jews are no longer required to offer sacrifices.

The second exception is that Jews don't have to follow any law that requires a temple.  This is only because the temple does not exist.

 


No human can die /be a sacrifice for the sins of another.
That is the Christians biggest selling and failing point in their theology.


simple theist
Theist
Posts: 259
Joined: 2007-05-28
User is offlineOffline
AtheistAviB wrote: simple

AtheistAviB wrote:
simple theist wrote:

The Old Testament was given to Jews, and therefore Jews must follow every law in the old Testament. (or try to follow every law in the OT). A Gentile does not have to follow Jewish law. So there is no passage in the New Testament that nullifies the OT.

There are only two exceptions, and the first is reguarding sacrifices. Because Jesus became the only sacrifice needed, Jews are no longer required to offer sacrifices.

The second exception is that Jews don't have to follow any law that requires a temple. This is only because the temple does not exist.

 


No human can die /be a sacrifice for the sins of another.
That is the Christians biggest selling and failing point in their theology.

Jesus was not simply human, he was also God, so your comment is irrelevant. It also has nothng to do with the question asked. 


AtheistAviB
AtheistAviB's picture
Posts: 71
Joined: 2007-06-07
User is offlineOffline
simple theist

simple theist wrote:
AtheistAviB wrote:
simple theist wrote:

The Old Testament was given to Jews, and therefore Jews must follow every law in the old Testament. (or try to follow every law in the OT). A Gentile does not have to follow Jewish law. So there is no passage in the New Testament that nullifies the OT.

There are only two exceptions, and the first is reguarding sacrifices. Because Jesus became the only sacrifice needed, Jews are no longer required to offer sacrifices.

The second exception is that Jews don't have to follow any law that requires a temple. This is only because the temple does not exist.

 


No human can die /be a sacrifice for the sins of another.
That is the Christians biggest selling and failing point in their theology.

Jesus was not simply human, he was also God, so your comment is irrelevant. It also has nothng to do with the question asked. 


Actually it has everything to do with the question asked, given that it directly counters the validity of your response to the question.
The question was referencing a passage that allows for all of the OT laws to be let go of and a move into the NT laws. The OT specifies that NONE of the laws held within are going to be let go of, ever, and that no one can die for the sins of another. Furthermore, it says any Messiah that comes along and tries to cancel out/change the OT laws is a false Messiah and should not be listened too.


simple theist
Theist
Posts: 259
Joined: 2007-05-28
User is offlineOffline
AtheistAviB wrote: simple

AtheistAviB wrote:
simple theist wrote:
AtheistAviB wrote:
simple theist wrote:

The Old Testament was given to Jews, and therefore Jews must follow every law in the old Testament. (or try to follow every law in the OT). A Gentile does not have to follow Jewish law. So there is no passage in the New Testament that nullifies the OT.

There are only two exceptions, and the first is reguarding sacrifices. Because Jesus became the only sacrifice needed, Jews are no longer required to offer sacrifices.

The second exception is that Jews don't have to follow any law that requires a temple. This is only because the temple does not exist.

 


No human can die /be a sacrifice for the sins of another.
That is the Christians biggest selling and failing point in their theology.

Jesus was not simply human, he was also God, so your comment is irrelevant. It also has nothng to do with the question asked.


Actually it has everything to do with the question asked, given that it directly counters the validity of your response to the question.
The question was referencing a passage that allows for all of the OT laws to be let go of and a move into the NT laws. The OT specifies that NONE of the laws held within are going to be let go of, ever, and that no one can die for the sins of another. Furthermore, it says any Messiah that comes along and tries to cancel out/change the OT laws is a false Messiah and should not be listened too.
Actually my statement is more in error for stating that sacrifices are considered part of the law. Sacrifices are not part of the law. None of the Jewish law has ever been altered.


flatlanderdox
Theist
Posts: 91
Joined: 2007-05-15
User is offlineOffline
hey there. just really

hey there.

just really quick:

1) The old testament laws are not really "nullified" in any good Christian theology. It's important to understand them as being "fulfilled" rather than "nullified."  It is a subtle but important difference.

2)  You can see Jesus reinterpreting several of the OT laws in the Sermon on the Mount (Matt 5-7), in addition to breaking Sabbath restrictions and other cleanliness laws many times throughout Gospel narratives.

3) Paul also speaks against the necessity of circumcision (especially in Galatians). 

4) In a vision, Peter is presented with a sheet of all kinds of "unclean" foods that God tells him are now "clean" (can't remember where off the top of my head...somewhere in Acts?).

 Hope this helps!

Ockham's Razor is only as sharp as you are.


inspectormustard
atheist
inspectormustard's picture
Posts: 537
Joined: 2006-11-21
User is offlineOffline
simple theist wrote: The

simple theist wrote:

The Old Testament was given to Jews, and therefore Jews must follow every law in the old Testament. (or try to follow every law in the OT). A Gentile does not have to follow Jewish law. So there is no passage in the New Testament that nullifies the OT.

There are only two exceptions, and the first is reguarding sacrifices. Because Jesus became the only sacrifice needed, Jews are no longer required to offer sacrifices.

The second exception is that Jews don't have to follow any law that requires a temple. This is only because the temple does not exist.

 

So, does that mean the ten commandments are only for those of jewish descent or jewish religion? Also, where does the bible state that only Jews need follow the old testament?


simple theist
Theist
Posts: 259
Joined: 2007-05-28
User is offlineOffline
inspectormustard

inspectormustard wrote:
simple theist wrote:

The Old Testament was given to Jews, and therefore Jews must follow every law in the old Testament. (or try to follow every law in the OT). A Gentile does not have to follow Jewish law. So there is no passage in the New Testament that nullifies the OT.

There are only two exceptions, and the first is reguarding sacrifices. Because Jesus became the only sacrifice needed, Jews are no longer required to offer sacrifices.

The second exception is that Jews don't have to follow any law that requires a temple. This is only because the temple does not exist.

 

So, does that mean the ten commandments are only for those of jewish descent or jewish religion? Also, where does the bible state that only Jews need follow the old testament?

For the ten commandments - Any Commandment Jesus gave, a gentile must follow. Because the ten commandments are further brakedowns of Jesus's two main commandments (Love God and your neighbor) a non-Jew must obey the ten commandments.

The fact is that no where in the New Testament were Gentiles commanded to obey Jewish law.  


inspectormustard
atheist
inspectormustard's picture
Posts: 537
Joined: 2006-11-21
User is offlineOffline
flatlanderdox wrote: hey

flatlanderdox wrote:

hey there.

just really quick:

1) The old testament laws are not really "nullified" in any good Christian theology. It's important to understand them as being "fulfilled" rather than "nullified." It is a subtle but important difference.

2) You can see Jesus reinterpreting several of the OT laws in the Sermon on the Mount (Matt 5-7), in addition to breaking Sabbath restrictions and other cleanliness laws many times throughout Gospel narratives.

 

I'll take that as deeds being more instructive than words; however it still bothers me that the laws set down in the old testament were, erm, not quite right. Why would Jesus need to reinterpret the rules of his father (himself if you lean that way), many of which people were smote over in the old testament?

flatlanderdox wrote:

3) Paul also speaks against the necessity of circumcision (especially in Galatians).

 

4) In a vision, Peter is presented with a sheet of all kinds of "unclean" foods that God tells him are now "clean" (can't remember where off the top of my head...somewhere in Acts?).

Hope this helps!

Well, a bit. I'm still rather fuzzy on the altered rules idea. Why change/alter/reinterpret the rules? Did God not know his own creation?


simple theist
Theist
Posts: 259
Joined: 2007-05-28
User is offlineOffline
inspectormustard

inspectormustard wrote:
flatlanderdox wrote:

hey there.

just really quick:

1) The old testament laws are not really "nullified" in any good Christian theology. It's important to understand them as being "fulfilled" rather than "nullified." It is a subtle but important difference.

2) You can see Jesus reinterpreting several of the OT laws in the Sermon on the Mount (Matt 5-7), in addition to breaking Sabbath restrictions and other cleanliness laws many times throughout Gospel narratives.

I'll take that as deeds being more instructive than words; however it still bothers me that the laws set down in the old testament were, erm, not quite right. Why would Jesus need to reinterpret the rules of his father (himself if you lean that way), many of which people were smote over in the old testament?

flatlanderdox wrote:

3) Paul also speaks against the necessity of circumcision (especially in Galatians).

 

4) In a vision, Peter is presented with a sheet of all kinds of "unclean" foods that God tells him are now "clean" (can't remember where off the top of my head...somewhere in Acts?).

Hope this helps!

Well, a bit. I'm still rather fuzzy on the altered rules idea. Why change/alter/reinterpret the rules? Did God not know his own creation?

Check out Acts Chapter 15.


inspectormustard
atheist
inspectormustard's picture
Posts: 537
Joined: 2006-11-21
User is offlineOffline
simple theist

simple theist wrote:
inspectormustard wrote:

 So, does that mean the ten commandments are only for those of jewish descent or jewish religion? Also, where does the bible state that only Jews need follow the old testament?

For the ten commandments - Any Commandment Jesus gave, a gentile must follow. Because the ten commandments are further brakedowns of Jesus's two main commandments (Love God and your neighbor) a non-Jew must obey the ten commandments.

The fact is that no where in the New Testament were Gentiles commanded to obey Jewish law.

 Is there any passage in the bible where Jesus commands (or even states that the gospel is partly directed toward) gentiles?  If there isn't, how do we know this gospel applies to anyone but the Jewish people?

 If so, would these passages from Matthew apply?

 5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.

5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

 5:19 Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

If not, why not? 


simple theist
Theist
Posts: 259
Joined: 2007-05-28
User is offlineOffline
This appears to be a decent

This appears to be a decent article on this subject

http://www.wcg.org/lit/law/chr%2Dsab/chr-sab1.htm

Sorry can't figure out how to make it a link. 

 


simple theist
Theist
Posts: 259
Joined: 2007-05-28
User is offlineOffline
inspectormustard

inspectormustard wrote:
simple theist wrote:
inspectormustard wrote:

So, does that mean the ten commandments are only for those of jewish descent or jewish religion? Also, where does the bible state that only Jews need follow the old testament?

For the ten commandments - Any Commandment Jesus gave, a gentile must follow. Because the ten commandments are further brakedowns of Jesus's two main commandments (Love God and your neighbor) a non-Jew must obey the ten commandments.

The fact is that no where in the New Testament were Gentiles commanded to obey Jewish law.

Is there any passage in the bible where Jesus commands (or even states that the gospel is partly directed toward) gentiles? If there isn't, how do we know this gospel applies to anyone but the Jewish people?

If so, would these passages from Matthew apply?

5:17 Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.

5:18 For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.

5:19 Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

If not, why not?

Looks like I did figure out how to make it a link after all. I should mention I didn't read the whole article, and simply skimmed over it.

I think Acts 15 will answer your questions. If it does't let me know and I'll try to give you some more answers from my opinion.


wavefreak
Theist
wavefreak's picture
Posts: 1825
Joined: 2007-05-10
User is offlineOffline
AtheistAviB wrote: simple

AtheistAviB wrote:
simple theist wrote:

The Old Testament was given to Jews, and therefore Jews must follow every law in the old Testament. (or try to follow every law in the OT). A Gentile does not have to follow Jewish law. So there is no passage in the New Testament that nullifies the OT.

There are only two exceptions, and the first is reguarding sacrifices. Because Jesus became the only sacrifice needed, Jews are no longer required to offer sacrifices.

The second exception is that Jews don't have to follow any law that requires a temple. This is only because the temple does not exist.

 


No human can die /be a sacrifice for the sins of another.
That is the Christians biggest selling and failing point in their theology.

 

Regardless of your persoanl belief, you cannot nullify a tenent of faith - any faith - by simple declaration. That is as arbitrary as me shouting out "all people with green shit go to heaven". 


flatlanderdox
Theist
Posts: 91
Joined: 2007-05-15
User is offlineOffline
Quote: inspectormustard

Quote:
inspectormustard said:

I'll take that as deeds being more instructive than words; however it still bothers me that the laws set down in the old testament were, erm, not quite right. Why would Jesus need to reinterpret the rules of his father (himself if you lean that way), many of which people were smote over in the old testament?  Well, a bit. I'm still rather fuzzy on the altered rules idea. Why change/alter/reinterpret the rules? Did God not know his own creation?

It's a complex topic, not anything that can be resolved or discussed in a couple posts on a message board.  There is a lot that goes into it, but those are some basic elements I pointed to. 

I think that part of the reason for the difference between old and new testaments is the evolution of civilization itself: as civilization evolves, so does God's interaction with mankind.  There is a lot that could be unpacked there.  Secondly, I think there is something of value to be seen in the basic aesthetic concept of dissonance to assonance (musically speaking) or conflict to resolution.  That moment when the strains of tension are resolved is a beautiful thing, and often the more tension, the greater the joy and beauty in the resolution. 

Another way this could be seen is in common life: if you never have to work hard in order to get good things in life, you really don't appreciate those good things as one who had to work hard for them would appreciate them.  I see this possibly coming into play with God and the law.  The law weighed so heavy on the hearts of the Jews that when it was finally consummated in Jesus it was a grace worthy of great rejoicing.  If there was nothing "hard" about it before, there would not have been as much a cause for rejoicing. 

Of course these are just very brief suggestions that could be unpacked significantly, but I just don't have time right now.  I'm just trying to offer some quick thoughts.  If you have no appreciation of, or place no importance on aesthetic philosophy, these explanations of possibilities are, of course, going to be meaningless.  But the more I study art, the more I'm growing to appreciate these things and see their importance. 

Take care!

Ockham's Razor is only as sharp as you are.


AtheistAviB
AtheistAviB's picture
Posts: 71
Joined: 2007-06-07
User is offlineOffline
wavefreak

wavefreak wrote:
AtheistAviB wrote:
simple theist wrote:

The Old Testament was given to Jews, and therefore Jews must follow every law in the old Testament. (or try to follow every law in the OT). A Gentile does not have to follow Jewish law. So there is no passage in the New Testament that nullifies the OT.

There are only two exceptions, and the first is reguarding sacrifices. Because Jesus became the only sacrifice needed, Jews are no longer required to offer sacrifices.

The second exception is that Jews don't have to follow any law that requires a temple. This is only because the temple does not exist.

 


No human can die /be a sacrifice for the sins of another.
That is the Christians biggest selling and failing point in their theology.

 

Regardless of your persoanl belief, you cannot nullify a tenent of faith - any faith - by simple declaration. That is as arbitrary as me shouting out "all people with green shit go to heaven". 



Well, for starters it's my personal disbelief.
Secondly, I did no such thing. All I have done is try to work within the context of the fairy tale at hand. I don't have to believe in something, Harry Potter persay, to find contradiction and point it out.


wavefreak
Theist
wavefreak's picture
Posts: 1825
Joined: 2007-05-10
User is offlineOffline
AtheistAviB

AtheistAviB wrote:
wavefreak wrote:
AtheistAviB wrote:
simple theist wrote:

The Old Testament was given to Jews, and therefore Jews must follow every law in the old Testament. (or try to follow every law in the OT). A Gentile does not have to follow Jewish law. So there is no passage in the New Testament that nullifies the OT.

There are only two exceptions, and the first is reguarding sacrifices. Because Jesus became the only sacrifice needed, Jews are no longer required to offer sacrifices.

The second exception is that Jews don't have to follow any law that requires a temple. This is only because the temple does not exist.

 


No human can die /be a sacrifice for the sins of another.
That is the Christians biggest selling and failing point in their theology.

 

Regardless of your persoanl belief, you cannot nullify a tenent of faith - any faith - by simple declaration. That is as arbitrary as me shouting out "all people with green shit go to heaven".



Well, for starters it's my personal disbelief.
Secondly, I did no such thing. All I have done is try to work within the context of the fairy tale at hand. I don't have to believe in something, Harry Potter persay, to find contradiction and point it out.

Uh,yeah. You basically injected something into the thread that is completely irrelevant. The only thing that follows from your statement is that you can't stick to the subject at hand.


AtheistAviB
AtheistAviB's picture
Posts: 71
Joined: 2007-06-07
User is offlineOffline
wavefreak

wavefreak wrote:
AtheistAviB wrote:
wavefreak wrote:
AtheistAviB wrote:
simple theist wrote:

The Old Testament was given to Jews, and therefore Jews must follow every law in the old Testament. (or try to follow every law in the OT). A Gentile does not have to follow Jewish law. So there is no passage in the New Testament that nullifies the OT.

There are only two exceptions, and the first is reguarding sacrifices. Because Jesus became the only sacrifice needed, Jews are no longer required to offer sacrifices.

The second exception is that Jews don't have to follow any law that requires a temple. This is only because the temple does not exist.

 


No human can die /be a sacrifice for the sins of another.
That is the Christians biggest selling and failing point in their theology.

 

Regardless of your persoanl belief, you cannot nullify a tenent of faith - any faith - by simple declaration. That is as arbitrary as me shouting out "all people with green shit go to heaven".



Well, for starters it's my personal disbelief.
Secondly, I did no such thing. All I have done is try to work within the context of the fairy tale at hand. I don't have to believe in something, Harry Potter persay, to find contradiction and point it out.

Uh,yeah. You basically injected something into the thread that is completely irrelevant. The only thing that follows from your statement is that you can't stick to the subject at hand.


You sure you're following along?

The subject was what part of the text allows the laws of the OT to be null/void. I responded that none can as the OT doesn't allow for that.
Where's the issue?


wavefreak
Theist
wavefreak's picture
Posts: 1825
Joined: 2007-05-10
User is offlineOffline
AtheistAviB wrote:

AtheistAviB wrote:
No human can die /be a sacrifice for the sins of another.
That is the Christians biggest selling and failing point in their theology.

Quote:


You sure you're following along?
The subject was what part of the text allows the laws of the OT to be null/void. I responded that none can as the OT doesn't allow for that.
Where's the issue?

The discussion is about the Law of the old testament and how it applies (or not). This has nothing to do with the possibility (or not) of a human dieing for another's sin.


AtheistAviB
AtheistAviB's picture
Posts: 71
Joined: 2007-06-07
User is offlineOffline
wavefreak

wavefreak wrote:
AtheistAviB wrote:
No human can die /be a sacrifice for the sins of another.
That is the Christians biggest selling and failing point in their theology.

 


You sure you're following along?

The subject was what part of the text allows the laws of the OT to be null/void. I responded that none can as the OT doesn't allow for that.
Where's the issue?

The discussion is about the Law of the old testament and how it applies (or not). This has nothing to do with the possibility (or not) of a human dieing for another's sin.


This has everything to do with that, as the entire reason for the Christians NOT following the laws of the OT is their assessment that Jesus died in fulfillment/removal of the laws of the OT.

Now, as I stated, the OT does not allow for its laws to EVER, under ANY circumstance, be trampled upon. It also does not allow for one to be sacrificed as a savior for the sins of others. 
I don't mean to come off as too much of a dick but catching on yet?


wavefreak
Theist
wavefreak's picture
Posts: 1825
Joined: 2007-05-10
User is offlineOffline
AtheistAviB

AtheistAviB wrote:
wavefreak wrote:
AtheistAviB wrote:
No human can die /be a sacrifice for the sins of another.
That is the Christians biggest selling and failing point in their theology.

 


You sure you're following along?

The subject was what part of the text allows the laws of the OT to be null/void. I responded that none can as the OT doesn't allow for that.
Where's the issue?

The discussion is about the Law of the old testament and how it applies (or not). This has nothing to do with the possibility (or not) of a human dieing for another's sin.


This has everything to do with that, as the entire reason for the Christians NOT following the laws of the OT is their assessment that Jesus died in fulfillment/removal of the laws of the OT.

Now, as I stated, the OT does not allow for its laws to EVER, under ANY circumstance, be trampled upon. It also does not allow for one to be sacrificed as a savior for the sins of others.
I don't mean to come off as too much of a dick but catching on yet?

 

The Old Testament is not the primary source for Christians. The New Testament addresses this question directly. So you can either get up to speed and address this question in the context of Christianity and the New Testment or continue to to insist your comment is relevant. 


AtheistAviB
AtheistAviB's picture
Posts: 71
Joined: 2007-06-07
User is offlineOffline
wavefreak

wavefreak wrote:
AtheistAviB wrote:
wavefreak wrote:
AtheistAviB wrote:
No human can die /be a sacrifice for the sins of another.
That is the Christians biggest selling and failing point in their theology.

 


You sure you're following along?

The subject was what part of the text allows the laws of the OT to be null/void. I responded that none can as the OT doesn't allow for that.
Where's the issue?

The discussion is about the Law of the old testament and how it applies (or not). This has nothing to do with the possibility (or not) of a human dieing for another's sin.


This has everything to do with that, as the entire reason for the Christians NOT following the laws of the OT is their assessment that Jesus died in fulfillment/removal of the laws of the OT.

Now, as I stated, the OT does not allow for its laws to EVER, under ANY circumstance, be trampled upon. It also does not allow for one to be sacrificed as a savior for the sins of others.
I don't mean to come off as too much of a dick but catching on yet?

 

The Old Testament is not the primary source for Christians. The New Testament addresses this question directly. So you can either get up to speed and address this question in the context of Christianity and the New Testment or continue to to insist your comment is relevant. 



The entire Christian theology is primarily based off of their withdrawal (incorretly so might I add) of the requirements for a Messiah. There is absolutely nothing of redemption through crucifixion nor is there any mention of the removal of all the previous laws once the Messiah comes. 
Wanna take a piece of the theology from the Jewish bible and then from it? That doesn't seem quite intellectually honest. Then again, I wasn't quite expecting much anyway.


wavefreak
Theist
wavefreak's picture
Posts: 1825
Joined: 2007-05-10
User is offlineOffline
AtheistAviB wrote: The

AtheistAviB wrote:


The entire Christian theology is primarily based off of their withdrawal (incorretly so might I add) of the requirements for a Messiah. There is absolutely nothing of redemption through crucifixion nor is there any mention of the removal of all the previous laws once the Messiah comes.
Duh. Redemption through crucifixion is never mentioned, but redemption through sacrifice is found throughout the Old Testament.
Quote:
Wanna take a piece of the theology from the Jewish bible and then from it?
I think you misstyped something because this makes no sense.
Quote:
That doesn't seem quite intellectually honest. Then again, I wasn't quite expecting much anyway.

 

At least I know what I am lying about. You, on the other hand seem to be clueless about the theology of sacrifice, redemption and the relationship of the Law to the New Testament and Christianity.


inspectormustard
atheist
inspectormustard's picture
Posts: 537
Joined: 2006-11-21
User is offlineOffline
AtheistAviB wrote:

AtheistAviB wrote:
The entire Christian theology is primarily based off of their withdrawal (incorretly so might I add) of the requirements for a Messiah. There is absolutely nothing of redemption through crucifixion nor is there any mention of the removal of all the previous laws once the Messiah comes.
wavefreak wrote:
Duh. Redemption through crucifixion is never mentioned, but redemption through sacrifice is found throughout the Old Testament.
AtheistAviB wrote:
Wanna take a piece of the theology from the Jewish bible and then from it?
wavefreak wrote:
I think you misstyped something because this makes no sense.
AtheistAviB wrote:
That doesn't seem quite intellectually honest. Then again, I wasn't quite expecting much anyway.
wavefreak wrote:
At least I know what I am lying about. You, on the other hand seem to be clueless about the theology of sacrifice, redemption and the relationship of the Law to the New Testament and Christianity.
Whoa kids, settle down. Try to add information rather than chasing eachother around with semantics and P->Qs.
I've picked out a few interesting chunks from the aforementioned article:
Quote:
Many people are surprised to find that the Ten Commandments were given to Israel, and not to the rest of the world. It is just commonly assumed among many Christians that the “Big Ten” were designed for all humans and especially for Christians. But the Bible is very plain about who are the recipients of the Sinai law. The last verse of the book of Leviticus sums it up this way: “These are the commandments the Lord gave Moses on Mount Sinai for the Israelites” (Leviticus 27:34). Verse 46 of the previous chapter gives (. . .) "These are the decrees, the laws and the regulations that the Lord established on Mount Sinai between himself and the Israelites through Moses."
Further on:
Quote:
The book of Hebrews gives us even more insight into this new arrangement. Here we are told, “But the ministry Jesus has received is as superior to theirs as the covenant of which he is mediator is superior to the old one, and it is founded on better promises” (Hebrews 8:6).
So what I have gathered is1. God makes a deal with the Israelites: follow these rules and you'll be given paradise - break them and suffer death and/or eternal damnation.2. Many people die and/or are eternally damned.3. It turns out that the original law was designed to show that everyone is sinful.4. God launches a new law which relies more on getting into His good graces.5. "Good graces" means coming to Him through the head of marketing, Jesus Christ. Basically God invented coupons 1900 years in advance. You follow the teachings of Jesus, you get the half off deal on heaven. The problem still remains, however, that this is a form of chronological racism. God basically makes an example of millions of people as a set up for the liquidation sale. This is a classic example of creating demand. Similarly, De Beers was founded in 1888 and began monopolizing the diamond rush in South Africa from 1869 to 1871. They now control most of the world's diamonds and essentially created the market for them via marketing and induced scarcity.


wavefreak
Theist
wavefreak's picture
Posts: 1825
Joined: 2007-05-10
User is offlineOffline
inspectormustard

inspectormustard wrote:
Whoa kids, settle down. Try to add information rather than chasing eachother around with semantics and P->Qs.

 

My bad. <hangs head sheepishly> 

Quote:
 

I've picked out a few interesting chunks from the aforementioned article:
Quote:
Many people are surprised to find that the Ten Commandments were given to Israel, and not to the rest of the world. It is just commonly assumed among many Christians that the “Big Ten” were designed for all humans and especially for Christians. But the Bible is very plain about who are the recipients of the Sinai law. The last verse of the book of Leviticus sums it up this way: “These are the commandments the Lord gave Moses on Mount Sinai for the Israelites” (Leviticus 27:34). Verse 46 of the previous chapter gives (. . .) "These are the decrees, the laws and the regulations that the Lord established on Mount Sinai between himself and the Israelites through Moses."
Further on:
Quote:
The book of Hebrews gives us even more insight into this new arrangement. Here we are told, “But the ministry Jesus has received is as superior to theirs as the covenant of which he is mediator is superior to the old one, and it is founded on better promises” (Hebrews 8:6).
So what I have gathered is1. God makes a deal with the Israelites: follow these rules and you'll be given paradise - break them and suffer death and/or eternal damnation.2. Many people die and/or are eternally damned.3. It turns out that the original law was designed to show that everyone is sinful.4. God launches a new law which relies more on getting into His good graces.5. "Good graces" means coming to Him through the head of marketing, Jesus Christ. Basically God invented coupons 1900 years in advance. You follow the teachings of Jesus, you get the half off deal on heaven. The problem still remains, however, that this is a form of chronological racism. God basically makes an example of millions of people as a set up for the liquidation sale. This is a classic example of creating demand. Similarly, De Beers was founded in 1888 and began monopolizing the diamond rush in South Africa from 1869 to 1871. They now control most of the world's diamonds and essentially created the market for them via marketing and induced scarcity.

 

 

I was going to bring up Hebrews, but I was haveing fun slingin mud.

 

One problem I have with your coupon analogy is that it falls itno a trap I see quite often. It seems that understanding of the biblical god is not allowed to evolve and mature. It makes sense to me that the ideas about god would change dramatically in the time frame between Exodus and the crucifixion.  It baffles me that Christians cling to the bible as infallible and conversely that atheists inisist on consistancy between the old and new teataments. I just can't accept that the concepts of god remained static from the writing of Genesis to the penning of Revalations. 


inspectormustard
atheist
inspectormustard's picture
Posts: 537
Joined: 2006-11-21
User is offlineOffline
wavefreak

wavefreak wrote:

inspectormustard wrote:
Whoa kids, settle down. Try to add information rather than chasing eachother around with semantics and P->Qs.

 

My bad. <hangs head sheepishly>

Quote:

(Long diatribe about marketing goes here!)

 

I was going to bring up Hebrews, but I was haveing fun slingin mud.

 

One problem I have with your coupon analogy is that it falls itno a trap I see quite often. It seems that understanding of the biblical god is not allowed to evolve and mature. It makes sense to me that the ideas about god would change dramatically in the time frame between Exodus and the crucifixion. It baffles me that Christians cling to the bible as infallible and conversely that atheists inisist on consistancy between the old and new teataments. I just can't accept that the concepts of god remained static from the writing of Genesis to the penning of Revalations.

It's fine for ideas, concepts, and the like to evolve. On the other hand I wonder why no one notices that the God outside time itself seems to evolve over time. If you look at the ideas conveyed over the many pages of the bible, the god that has supreme access to all of time changes quite a bit. Almost like he is along the whole time-ride himself.

I'll buy the explanation that God made an example to set the stage for the solution, but that still comes with the "what about all those sinners who were made an example of" package deal.

Had one been born in the pre-new covenant era, one would more likely be struck down by the law of God than those born now. That doesn't seem right at all, and paints a spooky picture of God's character.

So I guess there are two options for Him. Either He crafts and places souls knowing that they would suffer interminably with no chance for redemption, or He is not outside time and has to alter his plans accordingly. Perhaps some of these souls are fakes, the whole thing is a win-win scenario, and damnation is just an illusion to strengthen character.

Heh, I hope nobody is on drugs and reading this, they might start their own religion!


simple theist
Theist
Posts: 259
Joined: 2007-05-28
User is offlineOffline
inspectormustard

inspectormustard wrote:
AtheistAviB wrote:
The entire Christian theology is primarily based off of their withdrawal (incorretly so might I add) of the requirements for a Messiah. There is absolutely nothing of redemption through crucifixion nor is there any mention of the removal of all the previous laws once the Messiah comes.
wavefreak wrote:
Duh. Redemption through crucifixion is never mentioned, but redemption through sacrifice is found throughout the Old Testament.
AtheistAviB wrote:
Wanna take a piece of the theology from the Jewish bible and then from it?
wavefreak wrote:
I think you misstyped something because this makes no sense.
AtheistAviB wrote:
That doesn't seem quite intellectually honest. Then again, I wasn't quite expecting much anyway.
wavefreak wrote:
At least I know what I am lying about. You, on the other hand seem to be clueless about the theology of sacrifice, redemption and the relationship of the Law to the New Testament and Christianity.
Whoa kids, settle down. Try to add information rather than chasing eachother around with semantics and P->Qs.
I've picked out a few interesting chunks from the aforementioned article:
Quote:
Many people are surprised to find that the Ten Commandments were given to Israel, and not to the rest of the world. It is just commonly assumed among many Christians that the “Big Ten” were designed for all humans and especially for Christians. But the Bible is very plain about who are the recipients of the Sinai law. The last verse of the book of Leviticus sums it up this way: “These are the commandments the Lord gave Moses on Mount Sinai for the Israelites” (Leviticus 27:34). Verse 46 of the previous chapter gives (. . .) "These are the decrees, the laws and the regulations that the Lord established on Mount Sinai between himself and the Israelites through Moses."
Further on:
Quote:
The book of Hebrews gives us even more insight into this new arrangement. Here we are told, “But the ministry Jesus has received is as superior to theirs as the covenant of which he is mediator is superior to the old one, and it is founded on better promises” (Hebrews 8:6).
So what I have gathered is1. God makes a deal with the Israelites: follow these rules and you'll be given paradise - break them and suffer death and/or eternal damnation.2. Many people die and/or are eternally damned.3. It turns out that the original law was designed to show that everyone is sinful.4. God launches a new law which relies more on getting into His good graces.5. "Good graces" means coming to Him through the head of marketing, Jesus Christ. Basically God invented coupons 1900 years in advance. You follow the teachings of Jesus, you get the half off deal on heaven. The problem still remains, however, that this is a form of chronological racism. God basically makes an example of millions of people as a set up for the liquidation sale. This is a classic example of creating demand. Similarly, De Beers was founded in 1888 and began monopolizing the diamond rush in South Africa from 1869 to 1871. They now control most of the world's diamonds and essentially created the market for them via marketing and induced scarcity.
You forgott about the sacrifices that Jews made so their sins would be forgiven. They sacrificed animals until the temple was destroyed in 70 AD.


inspectormustard
atheist
inspectormustard's picture
Posts: 537
Joined: 2006-11-21
User is offlineOffline
simple theist wrote: You

simple theist wrote:
You forgott about the sacrifices that Jews made so their sins would be forgiven. They sacrificed animals until the temple was destroyed in 70 AD.

 I don't understand how that relates.


simple theist
Theist
Posts: 259
Joined: 2007-05-28
User is offlineOffline
inspectormustard

inspectormustard wrote:

simple theist wrote:
You forgott about the sacrifices that Jews made so their sins would be forgiven. They sacrificed animals until the temple was destroyed in 70 AD.

I don't understand how that relates.

Quote:

I'll buy the explanation that God made an example to set the stage for the solution, but that still comes with the "what about all those sinners who were made an example of" package deal.

Had one been born in the pre-new covenant era, one would more likely be struck down by the law of God than those born now. That doesn't seem right at all, and paints a spooky picture of God's character.

 

  In the OT you offered sacrifices for your sins to be forgiven. In the NT Christ is the sacrifice for all. Forgiveness from sin exists in both testaments. It doesn't mater which covenant era that your in. Commit one sin (or break one of God's laws) and you are guilty. 


inspectormustard
atheist
inspectormustard's picture
Posts: 537
Joined: 2006-11-21
User is offlineOffline
simple theist

simple theist wrote:
inspectormustard wrote:

simple theist wrote:
You forgott about the sacrifices that Jews made so their sins would be forgiven. They sacrificed animals until the temple was destroyed in 70 AD.

I don't understand how that relates.

Quote:

I'll buy the explanation that God made an example to set the stage for the solution, but that still comes with the "what about all those sinners who were made an example of" package deal.

Had one been born in the pre-new covenant era, one would more likely be struck down by the law of God than those born now. That doesn't seem right at all, and paints a spooky picture of God's character.

In the OT you offered sacrifices for your sins to be forgiven. In the NT Christ is the sacrifice for all. Forgiveness from sin exists in both testaments. It doesn't mater which covenant era that your in. Commit one sin (or break one of God's laws) and you are guilty.

Ah, okay. But why does he need to shed blood for forgiveness? Before he can forgive anyone, he had to kill himself/his son; before that we did all the work doing the killing of the animal sacrifices.

I can sum this up pretty quick: there's a big guy out in space who will damn you if you don't give him blood as a token of repentance. The good news is he's had enough blood now, though, so you can worship him for all the blood spilt just in case you messed up.

I'm glad we now know that humanity is basically good and ends up being led down the work path, rather than the "born sinner" idea. 


jive turkey
Theist
jive turkey's picture
Posts: 41
Joined: 2007-05-14
User is offlineOffline
inspectormustard wrote:

inspectormustard wrote:
But why does he need to shed blood for forgiveness?

This comes from the, "If you eat (the forbidden fruit) you will surely die", statement. It's not about blood per se but about the whole sin=death thing.

inspectormustard wrote:
I can sum this up pretty quick: there's a big guy out in space who will damn you if you don't give him blood as a token of repentance. The good news is he's had enough blood now, though, so you can worship him for all the blood spilt just in case you messed up.

More misunderstanding. The theology works like this. God = source of life. If you go away from the source of life you die. Sin = moving away from the source of life. Sacrifice = substitution. First death in the bible was the animals skins God gave to Adam and Eve as covering after they disobeyed. This introduces the idea of substitutionary death. This idea gets expanded throughout the bible, from 1 sacrifice for 1 sin to 1 sacrifice for 1 family to 1 sacrifice for 1 nation to 1 sacrifice for the world. 

The whole idea is to fix what got broken.


inspectormustard
atheist
inspectormustard's picture
Posts: 537
Joined: 2006-11-21
User is offlineOffline
jive turkey

jive turkey wrote:
inspectormustard wrote:
But why does he need to shed blood for forgiveness?

This comes from the, "If you eat (the forbidden fruit) you will surely die", statement. It's not about blood per se but about the whole sin=death thing.

inspectormustard wrote:
I can sum this up pretty quick: there's a big guy out in space who will damn you if you don't give him blood as a token of repentance. The good news is he's had enough blood now, though, so you can worship him for all the blood spilt just in case you messed up.

More misunderstanding. The theology works like this. God = source of life. If you go away from the source of life you die. Sin = moving away from the source of life. Sacrifice = substitution. First death in the bible was the animals skins God gave to Adam and Eve as covering after they disobeyed. This introduces the idea of substitutionary death. This idea gets expanded throughout the bible, from 1 sacrifice for 1 sin to 1 sacrifice for 1 family to 1 sacrifice for 1 nation to 1 sacrifice for the world.

The whole idea is to fix what got broken.

 Sure, I understand the original sin idea. It still seems an aweful lot like entrapment to me, but I'll follow the line of reasoning down as far as I can. The reason why it seems so amoral to me is if sin = death and rape, theivery, swearing, etc. = sin, all transgressions are equivalent. If all transgressions are equivalent and forgiveness is found through Jesus's sacrifice (the dues are paid, may as well use em), then if you sin you might as well run the whole gamut before praying for forgiveness again. After all, you've already committed the worst possible sin by being born a relative of Adam The Disobediant.

 In other words, if you step on someone's foot you should also slap them in the face and spit on their mother. Or, if it's the number of sins that matters then we should aim to do our worst at all times since it's still the same amount of sin. If someone makes you mad at work, if you have to act out you might as well blow up their car. You can always be forgiven later.


simple theist
Theist
Posts: 259
Joined: 2007-05-28
User is offlineOffline
inspectormustard

inspectormustard wrote:

jive turkey wrote:
inspectormustard wrote:
But why does he need to shed blood for forgiveness?

This comes from the, "If you eat (the forbidden fruit) you will surely die", statement. It's not about blood per se but about the whole sin=death thing.

inspectormustard wrote:
I can sum this up pretty quick: there's a big guy out in space who will damn you if you don't give him blood as a token of repentance. The good news is he's had enough blood now, though, so you can worship him for all the blood spilt just in case you messed up.

More misunderstanding. The theology works like this. God = source of life. If you go away from the source of life you die. Sin = moving away from the source of life. Sacrifice = substitution. First death in the bible was the animals skins God gave to Adam and Eve as covering after they disobeyed. This introduces the idea of substitutionary death. This idea gets expanded throughout the bible, from 1 sacrifice for 1 sin to 1 sacrifice for 1 family to 1 sacrifice for 1 nation to 1 sacrifice for the world.

The whole idea is to fix what got broken.

Sure, I understand the original sin idea. It still seems an aweful lot like entrapment to me, but I'll follow the line of reasoning down as far as I can. The reason why it seems so amoral to me is if sin = death and rape, theivery, swearing, etc. = sin, all transgressions are equivalent. If all transgressions are equivalent and forgiveness is found through Jesus's sacrifice (the dues are paid, may as well use em), then if you sin you might as well run the whole gamut before praying for forgiveness again. After all, you've already committed the worst possible sin by being born a relative of Adam The Disobediant.

In other words, if you step on someone's foot you should also slap them in the face and spit on their mother. Or, if it's the number of sins that matters then we should aim to do our worst at all times since it's still the same amount of sin. If someone makes you mad at work, if you have to act out you might as well blow up their car. You can always be forgiven later.

You can't simply ask Jesus for forgiveness...you must repent. To repent basically means you regret and have remorse for your past decisions. What is in the heart matters.You must be sorry for your past sins, and honestly try to sin no more.


RatDog
atheist
Posts: 573
Joined: 2008-11-14
User is offlineOffline
bump

bump