Homosexuality ambiguous in the Bible?
I read Rook's rebuttal on 'Slavery and Homosexuality' but there were a few things that I wanted to have cleared up. Many have argued that the term has been used with multiple different meanings in the first few centuries AD, some referring to paederasty and others to people who practise anal sex (not limited to homosexual anal sex), the earlier ones (closer to the time of the epistles) tending to mean paederasty.
Can anyone present evidence that it refers to the homosexual orientation in this instance (the passage refutted by Hawkins), or anywhere in the literature from the period for that matter?
Thanks for your help!